Electronics Engineering Mastery Test 7: ECE Pre-Board

Pre-Board Examinations in Electronics Engineering Mastery Test 7 composed of previous Board Exams Questions and/or from related books and resources. Familiarize each and every questions.

Electronics Engineering Exam 7

This is 100 items set of Practice Examination 7 in Electronics Engineering composed of previous Board Exams Questions. Read each questions and choices carefully! Choose the best answer. In the actual board, you have to answer 100 items in Electronics Engineering within 5 hours. You have to get at least 70% to pass the subject. Electronics Engineering is 30% of the total 100% Board Rating along with Mathematics (20%), General Engineering and Applied Sciences (20%) and Electronics Systems and Technology (30%).

Start the Test Yourself Exam 7

Choose the letter of the best answer in each questions.

1. What is the term given to arranging data records in a predefined sequence or order?

  • A. Sorting
  • B. Arranging
  • C. Sequencing
  • D. Ordering

2. What computer language was developed for mathematical work?

  • A. MATIMATICA
  • B. BASIC
  • C. MATHTYPE
  • D. FORTRAN

3. What IF frequencies are normally used in radar receivers?

  • A. 30 or 60 MHz
  • B. 60 or 80 MHz
  • C. 30 or 40 MHz
  • D. 60 or 70 MHz

4. Mechanical rotation frequency is measured using a device called ___.

  • A. Frequency counter
  • B. Accelerometer
  • C. Frequency meter
  • D. Tachometer

5. Electrical-output frequencies of ac generators can be measured by ___.

  • A. Vibrating-reed devices or tuned circuits
  • B. Accelerometer
  • C. Frequency meter
  • D. Tachometer

6. Audio frequencies can be measured by a process known as ___.

  • A. Frequency counting
  • B. Beating
  • C. Zero beating
  • D. Mixing

7. What is another term for zero beating?

  • A. Frequency counting
  • B. Beating
  • C. Heterodyning
  • D. Mixing

8. What wavemeter is used for measuring frequencies in the microwave range?

  • A. Frequency counter
  • B. Cavity wavemeter
  • C. Bolometer
  • D. Absorption wavemeter

9. What is the process of matching an unknown signal with a locally generated signal of the same frequency obtained from a calibrated high-precision oscillator?

  • A. Frequency beating
  • B. Beating
  • C. Zero beating
  • D. Mixing

10. What device that sweeps over a band of frequencies to determine what frequencies are being produced by a specific circuit under test and the amplitude of each frequency component?

  • A. Frequency counter
  • B. Cavity wavemeter
  • C. Bolometer
  • D. Spectrum analyzer

11. What is commonly used for the analysis of waveforms generated by electronic equipment?

  • A. Frequency counter
  • B. Cavity wavemeter
  • C. Cathode-ray oscilloscope(CRO or O-SCOPE)
  • D. Bolometer

12. What is device used to measure frequencies above the audio range?

  • A. Frequency counter
  • B. Cavity wavemeter
  • C. Bolometer
  • D. Electronic frequency counter

13. What are calibrated resonant circuits used to measure frequency?

  • A. Frequency counter
  • B. Cavity wavemeter
  • C. Wavemeters
  • D. Spectrum analyzer

14. What is the difference in frequency between the oscillator frequency and the unknown frequency?

  • A. Beat frequency
  • B. Image frequency
  • C. IF
  • D. Signal frequency

15. The rotation frequency of recording devices and teletypewriter motors can be measured by the use of a ___.

  • A. Tachometer
  • B. Frequency counter
  • C. Oscilloscope
  • D. Stroboscope

16. What is an instrument that allows you to view rotating or reciprocating objects intermittently and produces the optical effect of a slowing down or stopping motion?

  • A. Tachometer
  • B. Frequency counter
  • C. Oscilloscope
  • D. Stroboscope

17. What is an electronic flash device in which the flash duration is very short, a few millionths of a second and can measure very rapid motion?

  • A. Tachometer
  • B. Frequency counter
  • C. Strobotac
  • D. Stroboscope

18. What is a combination of watch and revolution counter?

  • A. Chronometric tachometer
  • B. Frequency counter
  • C. Strobotac
  • D. Stroboscope

19. What type of bolometer is characterized by an increase in resistance as the dissipated power rises?

  • A. Chronometric tachometer
  • B. Barretter
  • C. Strobotac
  • D. Stroboscope

20. What type of bolometer is characterized by decrease in resistance as the power increases?

  • A. Chronometric tachometer
  • B. Barretter
  • C. Strobotac
  • D. Thermistor

21. What instrument is used for measuring radio frequency (rf) power?

  • A. Thermocouple ammeter
  • B. Barretter
  • C. Strobotac
  • D. Thermistor

22. When using strobotac, at what speed is “flicker” becomes a problem because the human eye can retain successive images long enough to create the illusion of continuous motion?

  • A. 600 rpm
  • B. 1200 rpm
  • C. 500 rpm
  • D. 300 rpm

23. What is the approximate life of the strobotron lamp if used at flashing speeds of less than 5,000 rpm?

  • A. 250 hours
  • B. 1200 hours
  • C. 500 hours
  • D. 300 hours

24. What is the approximate life of the strobotron lamp if used at flashing speeds of more than 5,000 rpm?

  • A. 250 hours
  • B. 100 hours
  • C. 500 hours
  • D. 300 hours

25. What are used as filters for the passage or rejection of specific frequencies?

  • A. Tuned circuits
  • B. Band pass filter
  • C. Filter circuits
  • D. High pass filter

26. An elementary, single coil, dc generator will have an output voltage with how many pulsations per revolution?

  • A. One
  • B. Three
  • C. Two
  • D. Four

27. How many commutator segments are required in a two-coil generator?

  • A. One
  • B. Three
  • C. Two
  • D. Four

28. How can field strength be varied in a practical dc generator?

  • A. By varying the input voltage to the field coils
  • B. By varying the output voltage to the field coils
  • C. By increasing the number of field windings
  • D. By decreasing the number of field windings

29. Are dc generators that are designed to act as high-gain amplifier.

  • A. Amplidynes
  • B. Dynamos
  • C. Synchros
  • D. Servos

30. The power output of the amplidynes may be up to ___ times larger than the power input to its control windings.

  • A. 100,000
  • B. 1,000
  • C. 10,000
  • D. 100

31. What generators have both series field windings and shunt field windings?

  • A. Universal generators
  • B. Series-wound dc generators
  • C. Parallel-wound dc generators
  • D. Compound-wound dc generators

32. The substrate of an N-channel MOSFET is made of what material?

  • A. P-type material
  • B. Intrinsic material
  • C. N-type material
  • D. Extrinsic material

33. In a MOSFET, which element is insulated from the channel material?

  • A. The source terminal
  • B. The gate terminal
  • C. The substrate terminal
  • D. The drain material

34. What type of MOSFET can be independently controlled by two separate signals?

  • A. The single-gate MOSFET
  • B. The four-gate MOSFET
  • C. The dual-gate MOSFET
  • D. The dual-drain MOSFET

35. What is the purpose of the spring or wire around the leads of a new MOSFET?

  • A. To prevent damage from static electricity
  • B. To prevent damage from dynamic electricity
  • C. To prevent damage from intense pressure
  • D. To prevent damage from intense temperature

36. What is a typical light-to-dark resistance ratio for photocell?

  • A. 1:1000
  • B. 1:2000
  • C. 1:10000
  • D. 1:20000

37. What semiconductor device produces electrical energy when exposed to light?

  • A. Photoelectronic cell
  • B. Photovoltaic cell
  • C. Photoelectric cell
  • D. Optoelectronic device

38. The UJT has how many PN junctions?

  • A. One
  • B. Three
  • C. Two
  • D. Four

39. The area between base 1 and base 2 in a UJT acts as what type of common circuit component?

  • A. Variable inductor
  • B. Variable resistor
  • C. Variable capacitor
  • D. Fixed resistor

40. The sequential rise in voltage between the two bases of the UJT is called what?

  • A. A voltage spike
  • B. A voltage peak
  • C. A voltage gradient
  • D. A voltage surge

41. What is the normal current path for a UJT?

  • A. From base 1 to the emitter
  • B. From base 1 to base 2
  • C. From base 2 to the emitter
  • D. From the input to output

42. What is one of the primary advantages of the FET when compared to the bipolar transistor?

  • A. Low input impedance
  • B. High input impedance
  • C. Low output impedance
  • D. High output impedance

43. The SCR is primarily used for what function?

  • A. The SCR is primarily used for amplifying
  • B. The SCR is for both switching and amplifying
  • C. The SCR is primarily used for switching power on or off
  • D. The SCR is for any electronic application

44. When an SCR is forward biased, what is needed to cause it to conduct?

  • A. A drain signal
  • B. A source signal
  • C. A anode signal
  • D. A gate signal

45. What is the only way to cause an SCR to stop conducting?

  • A. The forward bias must be reduced below the minimum conduction level
  • B. The forward bias must be increased above the minimum conduction level
  • C. The forward bias must be equal to the minimum conduction level
  • D. The reverse bias must be reduced below the minimum conduction level

46. The TRIAC is similar in operation to what device?

  • A. SCS
  • B. SCR
  • C. UJT
  • D. DIAC

47. When used for ac current control, during which alternation of the ac cycle does the TRIAC control current flow?

  • A. During both alternations
  • B. With only one alternation
  • C. During positive alternation only
  • D. During negative alternation only

48. What type of bias is required to cause an LED to produce light?

  • A. Forward bias
  • B. Either a of b
  • C. Reverse bias
  • D. Neither a nor b

49. When compared to incandescent lamps, what is the power requirement of an LED?

  • A. Very high
  • B. Very low
  • C. High
  • D. Low

50. The varactor displays what useful electrical property?

  • A. Variable resistance
  • B. Variable capacitance
  • C. Variable inductance
  • D. Variable frequency

51. When a PN junction is forward biased, what happens to the depletion region?

  • A. The depletion region decreases
  • B. The depletion region increases
  • C. The depletion region disappears
  • D. The depletion region remains the same

52. When the reverse bias on a varactor is increased, what happens to the effective capacitors?

  • A. Capacitance increases
  • B. Capacitance decreases
  • C. Capacitance remains the same
  • D. Temperature coefficient increases

53. In a reverse biased PN-junction, which current carriers cause leakage current?

  • A. The majority carriers
  • B. The minority carriers
  • C. The majority and minority carriers
  • D. Either the majority or minority carriers

54. The action of a PN-junction during breakdown can be explained by what two theories?

  • A. Zener effect and avalanche effect
  • B. Zener and flywheel effects
  • C. Avalanche and flywheel effects
  • D. Zener and miller effects

55. Which breakdown theory explains the action that takes place in a heavily doped PN-junction with a reverse bias of less than 5 volts?

  • A. Miller effect
  • B. Zener effect
  • C. Avalanche effect
  • D. Flywheel effect

56. In SCR, the anode current is made up of

  • A. Electrons
  • B. Holes
  • C. Electrons and holes
  • D. Positive ions

57. What is the most popular oscillator configuration for audio application?

  • A. Wien bridge oscillator
  • B. Hartley oscillator
  • C. Colpitt’s oscillator
  • D. Tuned oscillator

58. The suppressor grid is added to a tetrode to reduce what undesirable characteristic of tetrode operation?

  • A. Primary emission
  • B. Secondary emission
  • C. Tertiary emission
  • D. Quaternary emission

59. What type of bias requires constant current flow through the cathode circuit of a triode?

  • A. Anode biasing
  • B. Cathode biasing
  • C. Fixed biasing
  • D. Self biasing

60. How are computers classified?

  • A. Technology
  • B. Purpose
  • C. Data they handle
  • D. All of the choices

61. Mechanical computers are considered to be of what type?

  • A. Analog
  • B. Special
  • C. Digital
  • D. General

62. In a general-purpose computer, the ability to perform a wide variety of operations is achieved at the expense of what capabilities?

  • A. Speed and accuracy
  • B. Speed and memory capacity
  • C. Speed and efficiency
  • D. Speed and versatility

63. All analog computers are what type of computers?

  • A. Special-purpose
  • B. Mechanical
  • C. Electromechanical
  • D. First generation

64. What are analog computers deigned to measure?

  • A. Electrical quantities
  • B. Physical quantities
  • C. Natural quantities
  • D. Continuous electrical or physical conditions

65. Early analog computers were what type of devices?

  • A. Mechanical or electromechanical
  • B. Sold state type
  • C. Vacuum type
  • D. Electrical

66. What are computers called that combine the functions of both analog and digital computers?

  • A. Versatile computers
  • B. Hybrid computers
  • C. Anadigi computers
  • D. Mainframe computers

67. Which on is the first generation of IC op-amps?

  • A. Fair child 709
  • B. Texas instrument 709
  • C. Motorola 709
  • D. National semiconductor 709

68. What is the most basic type of filter?

  • A. The capacitor filter
  • B. Inductor filter
  • C. LC filter
  • D. Mechanical filter

69. What is the range of values usually chosen for a choke?

  • A. From 20 to 100 H
  • B. From 1 to 20 H
  • C. From 1 to 10 H
  • D. From 10 to 20 H

70. What is the ripple frequency of a full-wave rectifier with an input frequency of 60 Hz?

  • A. 120 Hz
  • B. 60 Hz
  • C. 240 Hz
  • D. 360 Hz

71. A standard programming language of the U.S. defence department similar to Pascal.

  • A. Ada
  • B. C++
  • C. BASIC
  • D. RPG

72. The electron tube replaces what component in an electron tube voltage regulator?

  • A. Variable inductor
  • B. Variable resistor
  • C. Variable capacitor
  • D. Transistor

73. Which of the following is referred to as organized data?

  • A. Source
  • B. Input
  • C. Information
  • D. Output

74. What is the common mode rejection ratio of an ideal differential amplifier?

  • A. Infinity
  • B. Less than unity
  • C. Unity
  • D. Zero

75. The type of feedback used to improve the fidelity of an amplifier and to increase its frequency response.

  • A. Fidelity feedback
  • B. Positive feedback
  • C. Unwanted feedback
  • D. Negative feedback

76. A negatively charge atom is sometimes called ___.

  • A. Electron
  • B. Anion
  • C. Cation
  • D. Ion

77. If the magnitude of the potential difference is generated by a single conductor passing through a magnetic field, which of the following statements is false?

  • A. The potential difference depends on the speed with which the conductor cuts the magnetic field
  • B. The potential difference depends on the length of the conductor that cuts the magnetic field
  • C. The potential difference depends on the magnetic field density that is present
  • D. The potential difference depends on the diameter of the conductor that cuts the magnetic field

78. LEDs normally work on a voltage from

  • A. 1 to 2 V
  • B. 10 to 20 V
  • C. 2 to 5 V
  • D. 3 to 6 V

79. Which of the following statements is true?

  • A. An ideal current source cannot be in parallel with a short circuit
  • B. An ideal voltage source can be in parallel with an open circuit
  • C. An ideal current source can be in series with an open circuit
  • D. An ideal voltage source cannot be in series with an ideal current source

80. What is the average power dissipated by an electric heater with resistance of 50 Ω drawing a current of 20sin (30t) A?

  • A. 0 kW
  • B. 14.14 kW
  • C. 10 kW
  • D. 20 kW

81. What measurements are required to determine the phase angle of a single-phase circuit?

  • A. The power in watts consumed by the circuit
  • B. The frequency, capacitance and inductance
  • C. The power in watts, voltage and current
  • D. The resistance, current and voltage

82. The conductance and inductive susceptance of a circuit have the same magnitude. What is the power factor of the circuit?

  • A. 1
  • B. 0.5
  • C. 0.707
  • D. 0.866

83. A circuit has a resonant frequency of 455 kHz and a bandwidth of 57.2 kHz. Find the Q of the circuit.

  • A. 795
  • B. 0.795
  • C. 79.5
  • D. 7.95

84. A semiconductor logic output which pulls neither to a high nor a low voltage state.

  • A. Logic 1
  • B. Logic 0
  • C. Floating state
  • D. Limbo

85. An intrinsic semiconductor has some holes in it at room temperature. What causes these holes?

  • A. Doping process
  • B. Thermal energy
  • C. Ionization
  • D. Radiant flux

86. Refers to a field surrounding electrons and protons at stationary period indicating a stored energy.

  • A. Magnetic field
  • B. Electron field
  • C. Electrostatic field
  • D. Electrodynamic field

87. The time required to complete one cycle of a waveform.

  • A. Wavetime
  • B. Frequency
  • C. Wavelength
  • D. Period

88. Lines of flux that do not follow the intended path

  • A. Flux loss
  • B. Inductance leakage
  • C. Leakage flux
  • D. Hysteresis loss

89. What consist of elements inseparably associated and formed on a single substrate?

  • A. Micro-circuit
  • B. Module
  • C. Integrated circuit
  • D. PCB

90. What determines whether a substance is an insulator or a conductor?

  • A. Number of protons
  • B. Number of photons
  • C. Number of valence electrons
  • D. Number of neutrons

91. What do you call the space between and around charged bodies?

  • A. Magnetic field
  • B. Electromagnetic field
  • C. Electromotive field
  • D. Electrostatic field

92. What electrical quantity is measured by a watt-hour meter?

  • A. Current
  • B. Voltage
  • C. Energy
  • D. Power

93. What do you call the process of converting chemical energy into electrical energy in a cell?

  • A. Electron flow
  • B. Polarization
  • C. Electrolysis
  • D. Electrochemical action

94. A transformer has 500 turns in the primary and 1500 in the secondary, assuming no losses, if 45 V is applied to the primary, what is the voltage developed in the secondary?

  • A. 13.5 V
  • B. 135 V
  • C. 180 V
  • D. 90 V

95. What do you call the maintenance of oscillation in a circuit in the intervals between pulses of excitation energy?

  • A. Auto-oscillation
  • B. Flywheel effect
  • C. Damping
  • D. Feedback

96. Which one of the following can be used to generate a pulse whenever triggered?

  • A. Flip flop
  • B. Monostable multivibrator
  • C. Stable multivibrator
  • D. Schmitt trigger

97. What is energy of motion called?

  • A. Potential energy
  • B. Pneumatics
  • C. Kinematics
  • D. Kinetic energy

98. A fully charged lead-acid battery will indicate a specific gravity reading between ___.

  • A. 1.175 to 1.200
  • B. 1.225 to 1.250
  • C. 1.200 to 1.225
  • D. 1.275to 1.300

99. An effect about microwave oscillation that occurs in a small block of N-type gallium arsenide when a constant DC voltage above a critical value is applied to contact on opposite faces.

  • A. Gunn effect
  • B. Edison effect
  • C. Mossbauer effect
  • D. Miller effect

100. What is the most influential factor in the switching speed of saturated bipolar transistor?

  • A. Charge storage
  • B. hte
  • C. Collector current
  • D. hie

Complete List of Electronics Engineering Exams: ECE Pre-Board

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Post a Comment

Sir.answer of 14 is IF frequency not beat frequency.

IF is a frequency to which a carrier frequency is shifted as an intermediate step in transmission or reception.

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